In Peshawar, the value if one dollar is RS.100 , where as its value in Kabul, its value is Rs.105. If I were to lend someone in Kabul one dollar, and take back one dollar and five rupees from him since I am in Pakistan, would this be considered as Riba (interest)? If this is considered as Riba, then what would be a proper alternative for this transaction?
The transaction in the aforementioned question is considered as Riba, and must be avoided. However, a permissible alternative for this would be to instead sell the dollar for one hundred and Pakistani five rupees, and when the agreement has been settled, one party must immediately receive/take possession of the money from the other party, whereas the other party may receive it whenever he likes.
And Allah knows best.
کمافی المبسوط للسرخسی: وإذا اشتری الرجل فلوسا بدراہم ونقد الثمن ولم تکن الفلوس عند البائع فالبیع جائز لأن الفلوس الرائجۃ ثمن کالنقود وقد بینا أن حکم العقد فی الثمن وجوبہا ووجودہا معًا ولا یشترط قیامہا فی ملک بائعہا لصحۃ العقد کما یشترط ذلک فی الدراہم والدنانیر. (ج: ۱۴ ص: ۲۴)
فی الدر المختار: وفی الاشباہ کل قرض جر نفعًا حرام.(ج: ۵ص: ۱۶۶ طبع سعید) واللہ تعالیٰ اعلم بالصواب